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Exam Code: HP2-T19
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Solutions [2010])
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 154 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When should a performance baseline be captured?
A. after the initial installation of the equipment, during normal daily operation
B. after the initial installation of the equipment, during peak operating conditions
C. before and after each step of the initial installation of the equipment
D. three times a day during the first week following the initial installation of the equipment
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which processor type is used with the HP BL460c G6 Server Blade?
A. Dual-Core Intel Itanium Processor
B. Intel Xeon Processor
C. HP PA-RISC FSB, double data rate
D. AMD Opteron processor
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which full-height device bays are in Zone 3 of a c7000 enclosure?
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 5 and 6
D. 7 and 8
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP BladeSystem component is used for power allocation and control for all blades and
interconnects?
A. Rack and Power Manager
B. Power Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Insight Display
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of c3000 enclosures that can be installed in a 42U rack?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which feature is supported by the zx2 chipset in the Integrity BL860c?
A. hot spare and hot-plug of memory DIMMs
B. up to 512GB of memory (not fully buffered DIMMs)
C. memory DIMM error correction (chip sparing)
D. 512-bit, 800MHz (800 MT/s, 1600MHz data rate) memory bus
Answer: C

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Place the preventive measure steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.8 HOTSPOT
Click on the SB600c All-in-One Storage Blade in the graphic.
Answer:

NO.9 DRAG DROP
Place each server blade on its recommended application type.
Answer:

NO.10 What is needed to connect a Windows-based laptop to the c7000 or c3000 enclosure service port and
successfully communicate with the Onboard Administrator?
A. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a null modem cable
B. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a standard CAT5 patch cable
C. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a CAT5 crossover
cable
D. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a standard CAT5
patch cable
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which feature of the BL465c G7 allows the server to accommodate 16 DIMM slots and retain the
half-height form factor?
A. PCIe Gen 2 x8 mezzanine expansion slots
B. AMD SR5690/SP5100 chipset
C. Hot Plug Drive Drawer
D. Smart Array P410i Controller with 1GB FBWC
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which HP blade comes with a license for Microsoft Cluster Server (MSCS)?
A. BL490c
B. BL870c
C. X3800sb
D. xw2x220c
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which interconnect can be used with the Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capability of the new G7
Series of c-Class blades?
A. HP 1/10Gb-F Virtual Connect Ethernet
B. HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. HP ProCurve 6120G/XG interconnect
E. HP Virtual Connect FC Module
Answer: C

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NO.14 How does a c7000 enclosure retain air handling integrity when a server blade is removed?
A. The enclosure design uses blank panels to prevent air loss.
B. A blanking panel causes the air flow to reverse, allowing warmer air to escape.
C. The enclosure uses a self-closing door to prevent air loss.
D. The fans increase in revolutions per minute to increase air volume.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of SB1760c Tape Blades that can be installed in a c7000 blade
enclosure?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.16 HOTSPOT
Click on the component that provides remote enclosure management in c-Class enclosures.
Answer:

NO.17 Which connectivity type is supported to access Systems Management Architecture for the Server
Hardware (SMASH) Command Line Protocol? (Select three.)
A. serial
B. ftp
C. rcp
D. telnet
E. ssl
F. ssh
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.18 Which utilities can be used to scan for malware on a Windows server? (Choose two.)
A. Snort
B. Ad-Aware
C. Postfix
D. Microsoft Network Monitor
E. Spybot
Answer: B, E

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NO.19 Which HP c-Class server blades take up two c3000 enclosure server bays? (Select two.)
A. BL860c
B. BL870c
C. BL685 G7
D. BL490 G6
E. BL2x220c G6
Answer: A, B

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NO.20 What happens when you turn the enclosure UID to "On" on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure?
A. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
B. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
C. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
D. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-X01
Exam Name: HP (Desktops, Workstations and Notebook Tools and Diagnostics)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 20 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You are testing an HP notebook computer that displays the Windows error "Bug Check Qx7F: :
UNEXPECTED_KERNEL_MODE_TRAPT*.
What should you do?
A. Run a memory diagnostic test
B. Run a hard drive diagnostic test
C. Reset the BIOS settings to factory defaults
D. Check the system BIOS for a version update
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can you run HP Vision Diagnostics? (Select two)
A. from a USB Key
B. from a CD ROM disk
C. as a Web-browser hosted Java application
D. as an installed Windows executable application
Answer: A,B

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A. The system must be bootable to Windows
B. The system must have an HP_T0OLS utility partition
C. A specialized USB key must be connected
D. Special DASH hardware must be built in to computer
Answer: D

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NO.4 How do you access HP System Diagnostics (UEFI) on an HP computer'?
A. Press the F2 key at the BIOS system Startup Menu
B. Use a local CD ROM disk that contains the UEFI system files
C. Press the F8 key after the BIOS system Startup Menu displays
D. Navigate to the \HP_TOOLS directory of the boot disk and run SystemDiags.exe.
Answer: A

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NO.5 On which standard 15 Desktop and Mobile Architecture for System Hardware (DASH) based?
A. DMTF
B. IEEE
C. UEFI
D. USB 2.0
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.11 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.19 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y35
Exam Name: HP (Wireless Networks - ASE 2011 Delta Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In an IRF stack, which operational plane is centralized (in the Master) and which is distributed
(among all members)?
A. Management: centralized
Control: centralized
Forwarding: centralized
B. Management: distributed
Control: distributed
Forwarding: distributed
C. Management: centralized
Control: distributed
Forwarding: distributed
D. Management: distributed
Control: centralized
Forwarding: distributed
E. Management: centralized
Control: centralized
Forwarding: distributed
Answer: E

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NO.2 After a MAD enabled IRF-stack splits, what happens to the part of the stack that entered Recovery
state?
A. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, BFD enabled ports, and console ports are shut down.
B. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, LACP enabled Link aggregation groups, console ports, and
manually excluded ports are shut down.
C. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, console ports, and manually excluded ports, are shut down.
D. All ports except for manually excluded ports are shut down.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which protocols/technologies can be used to implement IRF MAD? (Select two.)
A. NSF/GR
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. BFD
E. LACP
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
You have recently upgraded the Comware of an HP A-Series Access Controller (AC). Prior to
rebooting the device, you issued the dir command to display the contents of the flash root
directory. Upon reboot, the AC does not successfully run the new version of firmware. What is the issue?
A. The device does not have enough memory to run the new firmware.
B. The filename of the firmware is incorrect.
C. The new firmware is not present in the root directory.
D. Thebootware of the device requires updating as well.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
When IRF with Distributed Link Aggregation is implemented at all layers of a LAN (Core,
Aggregation, and Access), which protocols can be replaced by IRF functions? (Select two.)
A. MSTP
B. LACP
C. BFD
D. NSF/GR
E. VRRP
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
An IRF-stack is being built using HP A5800 switches, and IRF member 1 will be connected to IRF
member 2 using IRF-port 2. Which IRF-port should it be connected to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. any
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which sampling mechanisms are available in sFlow in A-Series switches and routers? (Select
two.)
A. packet-based
B. packet-length-based
C. time-based
D. ip-protocol-based
E. ip-source-address-based
F. mac-address-based
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 You have been asked to deploy an additional HP A-Series wireless access point in the conference room
of an advertising agency. You connect to the CLI of the access controller and create an AP management
template. In which view do you specify the serial number of the access point?
A. Radio view
B. Service Template view
C. AP view
D. ESS Interface view
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which roles are supported by the sFlow standard?
A. agent and collector only
B. probe and collector only
C. agent, collector, and analyzer
D. probe, collector, and analyzer
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are acceptable topologies for an IRF-Stack? (Select two.)
A. star
B. tree
C. daisy-chain
D. mesh
E. ring
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
You have been asked to configure the switching engine of an HP A3000-24G PoE+ Wireless
Switch. First, you log in to the CLI of the access controller and then move to the System view. You
then attempt to issue the partial command oap co and use the Tab key to complete it. However,
the CLI does not complete the command but issues a line return instead, as shown in the exhibit.
What must you do to connect to the CLI of the switching engine?
A. Return to the User view and then issue the command.
B. Enter the OAP view and then issue the command.
C. Use the CTRL+K key combination to access the CLI of the switching engine.
D. Telnet directly to the IPaddress of the switching engine and issue the command.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
A network administrator is managing an HP A-Series Wireless Access Controller at the command
line interface (CLI). The administrator issues a command to view the contents of the controller
flash directory. Looking at the output, which access point models can the controller boot and
command to view the contents of the controller? flash directory. Looking at the output, which
access point models can the controller boot and manage? (Select two.)
A. HP WA2220-AG
B. HP WA2612-AGN
C. HP WA2620-AGN
D. HP WA2610E-AGN
E. HP WA2620E-AGN
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 You have been asked to deploy a guest wireless service within an A-Series solution in the
reception area of a marketing firm. The clients associated with the guest service should be
assigned to VLAN 10. In which view do you assign the VLAN to the wireless service?
A. System view
B. Service Template view
C. VLAN Interface view
D. ESS Interface view
Answer: D

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NO.14 Given an HP A5800 switch that is in its factory default configuration, what happens after the
following command sequence? (Note: There is no save command.) system-view irf member 1
renumber 2 quit reboot
A. The IRF member ID will be 1.
B. The IRF member ID will be 2.
C. The IRF member ID will be assigned dynamically.
D. The IRF member ID will be "unknown."
Answer: B

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NO.15 Using HP A5800 switches, which element must be configured in all switches involved in Layer 2
remote port mirroring?
A. remote-mirroring group
B. mirroring-ingress port
C. monitor-egress port
D. remote-probe VLAN
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M32
Exam Name: HP (Project and Portfolio Management Center 8.x Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How do you enable tracking of scheduled and actual work appropriated to requests?
A. Manually create data fields on requests.
B. Manually create data fields on requests and link to resources.
C. Enable the Work Item field group.
D. Enable the Demand Management Scheduling Fields field group.
E. Set the corresponding field attributes.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your manager asks you about setting up email notifications that can be triggered on a request. How
should you respond?
A. Notifications can be configured for any field on a request.
B. Notifications can be configured only on custom fields.
C. Notifications can be configured only on specific standard fields.
D. Notifications can be configured only on drop-down list boxes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Currently, all users can create an IS Release Calendar Change request. How do you change this so
only a specified group can create this request?
A. Make a copy of the request and update the workflow security.
B. Change the access grants for the specified group only.
C. Set Field Level restrictions to the specified group for any user-based data fields on the request type.
D. Go to User Access on the request type and configure the participant permissions.
E. Modify the ownership information for the request type.
Answer: D

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NO.4 When defining a timeout transition in a step source, which radio button do you click to define the
timeout?
A. Specific Event
B. Specific Result
C. Other errors
D. Specific Error
Answer: D

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NO.5 On the Request for Change request type, the user wants the Approved By field to be required when the
selected value for the Environment equals Production. What should you do to accomplish this?
A. Configure the Request Field Status Dependencies.
B. Create a simple default rule for the request type and set the event to Apply on Creation.
C. Create an advanced request type rule using SQL Default Logic.
D. Create an advanced request type rule using UI Rule Logic.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the workflow step sources? (Select three.)
A. Conditions
B. Flowcharts
C. Executions
D. Decisions
E. Graphics
F. Boolean
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which tab do you click on to check if a validation is being used by other entities?
A. Usage
B. Ownership
C. Used By
D. Values
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the main function of a workflow parameter?
A. It allows you to capture additional data that a request type is unable to capture to be shown in the
request type as a field.
B. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to direct other stages in the
process.
C. It allows you to capture the value of a field in the request type and use this value to direct other stages
in the process.
D. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to prompt the user for input.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What must you edit to change the transition name from Complete to Approved?
A. the workflow validation value only
B. the workflow name only
C. the workflow validation value and the transition name
D. the workflow validation value and the workflow name
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which display options are available on a decision workflow step? (Select two.)
A. Always
B. Conditional
C. Never
D. Only When Active
E. Immediate
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M41
Exam Name: HP (HP Universal CMDB 9.x. Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are best practices for a UCMDB High Availability deployment? (Select three.)
A. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster, but customer components are only active on the
active server.
B. UCMDB services run on all the servers in the cluster and customer components are active on all the
servers.
C. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by session.
D. The load balancer should be configured as sticky by IP.
E. The session keepalive address string contains a ClusterId parameter.
F. The session keepalive address string contains a ServerId parameter.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 What are the supported operating systems for the UCMDB application? (Select three.)
A. Sun SPARC Solaris 10
B. Windows 2003 Enterprise (64 bit)
C. Windows 2008 Enterprise (64 bit)
D. SUSE Linux 11 Enterprise (64 bit)
E. Windows 2000, 2003/2008 (32 bit)
F. Red Hat Linux 5 Enterprise/Advanced (64 bit)
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.3 What are the main components of the Data Flow Management architecture? (Select three.)
A. IP range
B. servers
C. discovery adapters
D. domain and credentials
E. database
F. data flow probe
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.4 What are the roles of CMDB database schemas? (Select two.)
A. to store only the system-wide and management-related metadata for the UCMDB environment
B. to store configuration information that is gathered from the various CMDBs and from the UCMDB
application
C. to store CI changes over a time range
D. to store saved snapshots of the views
E. to store the information that is gathered from third-party applications and tools
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 What does the IT Universe model represent?
A. the structure of all CI Types and their relationships
B. the sets of views defined in the CMDB environment
C. the structure of all CIs and CI Types
D. the data of all CIs and CI Types in the CMDB
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y37
Exam Name: HP (Migrating &Troubleshooting Enterprise Networks)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statements are true about the BGP configuration of this HP A-Series router? (Select two.)
A. The router announces IP prefix 200.1.0.0/23 to its BGP neighbor if the network is in routing table.
B. The as-path ACL define networks that were last forwarded by AS 200.
C. The configuration includes a filter out to the neighbor 222.222.10.1.
D. The BGP router is in AS 200 and its BGP neighbor is in AS 100.
E. The BGP router will establish a BFD connection with its BGP neighbor 222.222.10.1 if the neighbor is
also configured for BFD
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Which statements about BPDU Guard are correct? (Select three.)
A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol that prevents other switches from sending BDPUs.
B. BPDU Guard filters the standard BDPUs received on the port.
C. BPDU Guard filters the PVST BDPUs received on the port.
D. BPDU Guard generates an alarm when a BPDU is received on the port and may block the port.
E. BPDU Guard is an open standard.
F. BPDU Guard is not a protocol. It must be applied locally and individually on switches.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 Which statements are true about DHCP Snooping? (Select two.)
A. DHCP Snooping is a Cisco Proprietary protocol. The standard is not yet ratified.
B. DHCP Snooping prevents end nodes from receiving IP address assignments from an unauthorized
DHCP server.
C. DHCP Snooping is a malicious attack against the DHCP servers.
D. The DHCP Snooping binding table contains information about hosts interconnected with a trusted
interface.
E. DHCP Snooping is when a switch acts as a DHCP server for end nodes that connect to that particular
switch. This way, end nodes always get an IP address.
F. When configuring DHCP Snooping on a switch, you define which ports are trusted to receive DHCP
offers. Typically uplinks of a switch are trusted and Edge ports are untrusted.
Answer: B,F

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NO.4 You want to enable RRPP on interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/4 of an HP A-Series switch. Which
commands should be configured on this interface? (Select two.)
A. stp disable
B. rrrp ring 1 enable
C. port link-type trunk
D. port link-type rrpp
E. stp enable
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A company's LAN is composed of Cisco switches only. The network runs Rapid PVST+ with the short
pathcost method. Cisco distribution switches are set as root and secondary root in all VLANs. These two
switches connect over an Etherchannel. The company wants to install HP PoE switches at the edge of its
LAN. The customer wants to keep the load-balancing of traffic that is set in PVST+. What are the possible
options? (Select three.)
A. ensure Spanning Tree is disabled on the HP edge switch, and configure loop-protection on edge ports
to avoid local loops
B. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Smart Link with load balancing between
instances
C. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Rapid PVST+ on it
D. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink higher than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
E. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and divide the VLANs into different instances
F. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and set its uplink port cost to 5
G. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink lower than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which protocols are supported on the HP A-Series switch? (Select three.)
A. SSH v1 only
B. SSH v1 and v2
C. RADIUS only
D. TACACS+ and RADIUS
E. TACACS and RADIUS
F. SNMPv2c only
G. SNMPv2c and SNMPv3
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.7 Which statement is true about BGP Route Refresh? (Select two.)
A. Route Refresh is a feature for supported CPU functions with BGP routers that manage high number of
IP Prefixes.
B. Route Refresh is advertised as a BGP capability to BGP neighbors during BGP session
establishment.
C. BGP Route Refresh eliminates the need for a Hard Reset of the BGP connection with a BGP neighbor
when route policies are changed.
D. With Route Refresh, a BGP router stores all BGP prefixes sent by a BGP neighbor.
E. With Route Refresh, a BGP Hard Reset is used to generate inbound updates from a neighbor or to
generate outbound updates to a neighbor.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 You want to add HP edge switches to a company's Cisco network. Distribution Cisco switches are set as
the Rapid PVST+ root and secondary root. You connect HP A-Series switches that are running their
factory default configuration to the two Cisco distribution switches. What will happen.?
A. If you connect the edge switch with a redundant link to both distribution switches, you create a loop and
a broadcast storm on the Cisco network.
B. Cisco distribution switches send tagged PVST+ BPDUs to the HP switch. Because 802.1q is not yet
configured on HP switch uplinks, the PVST+ BPDUs are dropped. A loop occurs.
C. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to the HP switch in VLAN 1, and in
response the HP switch blocks one of the uplinks on all VLANs, preventing a loop.
D. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to HP switch in VLAN 1, which the HP
switch forwards to the other distribution switch, preventing a loop. The HP switch drops all tagged data
frames.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The address blocks chosen
by the customers for each site are shown in the following chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. A traceroute from Cust-A Site #1 to Cust-A Site #2 displays 5 intermediate routers.
Which statements are true? (Select three.)
A. MPLS label TTL expires on P-10.
B. TTL propagation is enabled on PE-1.
C. All but the first trace is processed by PE-2.
D. IP TTL expires on P-20.
E. PE-1 generates ICMP echo replies on behalf of P-10 and P-20.
F. TTL propagation is disabled on PE-1.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The following are address
blocks chosen by the customers for each site as shown in the chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A uses a default route on each site. Customer B uses eBGP to exchange routes
with the provider. All MPLS layer-3 VPNs are functioning properly. Which configuration change will cause
Customer-A Site 1 to lose access to Customer-A Site 2?
A. [PE-1]
bgp 1
undo import-route static
B. [P-10]
ospf 1
area 0
abr-summary 16.0.0.2 30 cost 1000
C. [PE-1]
int vlan 100
undo mpls ldp
D. [PE-3]
bgp 1
undo peer 16.0.0.1 reflect-client
E. [P-10]
ip route static 10.1.0.0 16 null 0 preference 9
Answer: B

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
You are replacing a Cisco BGP router with an HP A-Series BGP router. Examine the router's
configurations. Which statements accurately describe the routers' configurations? (Select three.)
A. Both configurations are identical in function.
B. The HP A-Series router will not implement the same BGP functions as the Cisco router.
C. Both BGP routers announce a static route to its BGP neighbor.
D. Both BGP routers announce network 215.34.10.0/22.
E. Neither BGP routers can announce a redistributed static route because no metrics are set.
F. The A-Series router's prefix list is misconfigured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for three customers. Each
customer has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. One customer is
advertising their IP prefixes between sites using BGP. This customer establishes a backup link directly
connecting Site-1 to Site-2. Which BGP attribute can the provider use to prevent routing update loops in
the MPLS network?
A. COO
B. FOO
C. KOO
D. SOO
E. VOO
Answer: D

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. In a multihome AS, you are replacing one of the BGP-configured Cisco routers with
a BGP-configured HP A-Series router. You want to reduce the downtime during the migration process.
Place the steps for the migration in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.14 What is a characteristic of load balancing in RRPP?
A. multiple RRPP rings within a domain
B. overlapping RRPP rings
C. multiple RRPP domains with different root priorities
D. It is not possible to load balance with RRPP.
E. multiple RRPP domains sharing the same ring
Answer: E

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
When interface Serial 4 of Router 2 fails, traffic from Router 1 destined for network 156.152.0.0/16 leaves
AS 65001 via the Serial 3 interface of Router 1. The administrator prefers that this traffic leaves AS 65001
through interface Serial 5 of Router 2. Which configuration change will achieve the desired results?
A. Router-2#
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.1 next-hop-local
B. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply local-preference 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
C. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
D. Router-1#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.2 route-policy Policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y40
Exam Name: HP (network infrastruclure security)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer owns storage arrays from multiple vendors. The customer wants to improve storage
capacity utilization and their ability to apply point-in-time copies of volumes that span multiple arrays.
Which solution meets these requirements.?
A. HP X9000 scale-out solution
B. HP P4000 G2 Storage Cluster architecture
C. HP StorageWorks EVA
D. HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)
Answer: D

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NO.2 A consultant is designing a SAN solution that includes an EVA6400 and an X3800 Network Storage
Gateway. The customer wants optimal utilization of their storage capacity. Which add-on software
provides this functionality?
A. Business Copy EVA
B. Replication Solution Manager
C. Cluster Extension EVA
D. Dynamic Capacity Management
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer's new business requires a flexible SAN solution, which can start at 20 device ports and
grow up to 120 device ports in a single stack per fabric. It should also include network management and
storage provisioning from a single screen. Which HP product line is the preferred solution?
A. HP StorageWorks DC04 SAN Director
B. Cisco MDS 9134 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. HP StorageWorks SN6000 8Gb Fibre Channel Switch
D. HP StorageWorks 8/80 SAN Switch
Answer: C

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NO.4 A consultant speaks to the CIO of an automotive manufacturing company. The CIO reveals the
company's plan to open a new data center to handle an expected increase in sales in the coming year.
The CIO also mentions that TCO is important to the CEO, and the CIO does not want to replace
components when expanding the data center. Which resource is available to analyze the expected cost of
the storage for the new data center and provide financial justification?
A. Business Value Tool
B. Alinean ROI Tool
C. SalesBuilder for Windows
D. StorageWorks TCO Calculator
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer wants to reduce the total cost of ownership of their storage infrastructure by
implementing a tiered storage approach. Which product feature of the SAN Virtualization Services
Platform (SVSP) environment allows implementation of data life cycle management policies?
A. SVSP Business Copy
B. SVSP Thin Provisioning
C. SVSP Volume Manager
D. SVSP Continuous Access
Answer: C

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NO.6 A consultant designs a disaster tolerance and disaster recovery solution in a Windows environment
using Enterprise Virtual Arrays (EVAs) and Cluster Extension EVAs (CLXs).Why should a majority node
be set or a fileshare witness be integrated in the design?
A. to verify that source and destination copies are identical
B. to prevent systems of LUN mapping changes in case of failover
C. to provide protection against split-brain situations
D. to guarantee the highest possible data consistency in the environment
Answer: C

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NO.7 A consultant presents an HP NAS solution based on two X1600 Network Storage System to the CIO
and CEO of an SMB customer with 110 IT seats. In addition to CIFS services, the customer wants to use
this storage system as iSCSI storage for existing Microsoft Windows SQL database servers.
Which benefit of the proposed solution should be presented to the CEO during this meeting?
A. reducing the Recovery Time Objective for file services in case of disk failure
B. minimizing power and cooling costs by using single-power supplies per system
C. reducing the Recovery Point Objective for databases when using snapshot functionality
D. minimizing rackspace by using a storage server with 3U per system
Answer: C

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NO.8 In being able to address a customer's business needs, a Converged Infrastructure requires more than
just some products connected loosely or in partnership with other companies. HP is uniquely positioned to
deliver on a full version of the Converged Infrastructure. What are some aspects of the Converged
Infrastructure that give HP a significant advantage in the marketplace? (Select two.)
A. power and cooling technologies
B. SAN bridges and routers
C. flexible servers and storage
D. data center design methodology
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 A flower distribution company purchased an ERP solution a year ago that included Windows servers,
two entry level SAN switches and a P2000 storage array. This company recently acquired another
business of similar size that uses the same ERP software, but with MSA2000fc G2 storage. A consultant
is engaged to recommend how to consolidate these two environments that utilizes both storage arrays.
Which resource provides compatibility and support guidelines for this situation?
A. HP SAN Design Guide
B. HP EBS Design Guide
C. HP Solution Sizer Tool
D. HP StorageWorks Sizer Tool
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is evaluating resource management software that is capable of efficient SAN and
end-to-end performance management for HP EVA storage arrays. Which HP software solution provides
this capability?
A. HP Insight Control
B. Data Center Fabric Manager Enterprise software
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM software
D. HP SAN Visibility
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which B-Series Switch license provides the customer with early fault detection in their SAN?
A. Adaptive Networking
B. Extended Fabric
C. Fabric Watch
D. Data Center Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer needs a synchronous replication solution to a remote site at a very low-price entry point.
Which product meets the customer's requirements?
A. HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Cluster
B. HP StorageWorks 2000fc G2 Modular Smart Array
C. HP P4000 G2 Multi-Site SAN
D. HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer provides performance and future growth requirements for a new SAN they want to purchase.
Which HP tool can be used to generate a list of components and a topology diagram for a SAN that meets
these requirements?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. SAN Designer
C. SAN Visibility
D. SAN Solution Sizer
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer is searching for a storage solution that provides combined FC/iSCSI connectivity paired
with target-based management at a low-price entry point. Which product meets these requirements?
A. HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Cluster
B. HP StorageWorks P4000 G2 SAN Solutions
C. HP StorageWorks P2000 G3 Modular Smart Array Systems
D. HP StorageWorks XP24000/XP20000 Disk Array
Answer: C

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NO.15 The CIO of a regional banking company indicates that the bank needs to open a new data center to
handle an increase in business and to properly protect the data of their customers. The new data center
will initially have constraints on the amount of floor space available. In choosing the size of servers and
storage, the customer has asked for both a flexible and efficient space configuration. In addition, they
want to be able to combine resources to support workloads of varying sizes and types.
Which type of servers and storage are recommended?
A. ProLiant DL Series servers and blade storage
B. ProLiant BL Series servers and blade storage
C. ProLiant BL Series servers and XP storage
D. ProLiant DL Series servers and P2000 storage
Answer: B

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