2013年10月31日星期四

IBM COG-625 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: COG-625
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When creating dimensions, what is commonly used to track historical changes?
A. Level filters
B. Surrogate keys
C. Output filters
D. Derived dimensions
Answer: B

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NO.2 Some incoming fact data has invalid product codes. The developer wants to accept this fact data and
assign the necessary surrogate keys in the dimension table. What can be done to accomplish this?
A. Accept unmatched member identifiers in the measure element properties.
B. Modify the SQL for the reference structure to exclude the missing product codes.
C. Accept unmatched member identifiers in the dimension element properties and save unmatched
member details via reference structure.
D. Add a derived dimension element to the fact build to store the missing product codes and unsubscribe
the element from the delivery module.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What can be done to minimize memory consumption?
A. Disable dimension breaking on the fact build.
B. Disable fact build logging.
C. Enable dimension breaking on the fact build.
D. Enable auditing on the fact build.
Answer: C

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NO.4 To reduce memory usage, what should be done when setting up dimension breaking for a fact build?
A. Ensure that each data source is sorted by the same set of dimensions, in the same sequence.
B. Specify at least one aggregate rule for each dimension element for which breaking is enabled.
C. Disable the hash table and page pool for the fact build.
D. Disable late arriving facts processing for the fact build.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The data in the Product dimension table appears as follows:
What is one of the things that must be done to ensure that all of these records are delivered into the
dimension table?
A. In the properties of the underlying hierarchy, set the Unbalanced Hierarchy feature to Accept.
B. In the properties of the dimension table, specify that late arriving dimension details are to be written to
a table.
C. In the properties of the underlying hierarchy, set the Multiple Parents feature to Accept.
D. In the properties of the template that is used to deliver the dimension build, include an attribute with
effective start date behavior.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A dimension table contains the following data:
If late arriving fact processing is enabled, what will be the value of the surrogate key assigned to the last
row of fact data?
A. 11110
B. 11111
C. 11112
D. 11113
Answer: B

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NO.7 A dimension table tracks employee data. If an employee's phone number changes, the old phone
number does not need to be kept. What kind of change is this?
A. Type 3, non-standard
B. Type 1
C. Type 2
D. Type 2, non-standard
Answer: B

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NO.8 A developer wants to ensure that the business keys in incoming source data are replaced with surrogate
keys in the fact tables. To do this, what must be modified?
A. Hierarchy properties
B. Template properties
C. Fact build properties
D. Connection properties
Answer: B

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NO.9 During execution, a fact build generated the following messages in the log file:
What can be done to avoid seeing the last three lines when the build is executed again.?
A. Increase the initial size of the hash table.
B. Decrease the size of the page pool.
C. Disable audit logging.
D. Increase the amount of working memory (in megabytes).
Answer: A

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NO.10 A dimension table tracks employee data. If an employee's work location changes, the previous work
location needs to be kept and a new record needs to be created. What kind of change is this?
A. Type 0
B. Type 1
C. Type 2
D. Type 3
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-622
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A user wants to be able to view the contents of a container entry, such as a package or a folder, and
view general properties of the container itself without having full access to the content. Which permission
does the administrator assign to the user.?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Traverse
D. Set Policy
Answer: C

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NO.2 After the installation of IBM Cognos BI, what must be done to ensure that only select users have
unrestricted access to Public Folders in IBM Cognos Connection?
A. Add the Anonymous user to the Directory Administrators role.
B. Remove the Everyone group from the Server Administrators role.
C. Remove the Everyone group from the System Administrators role.
D. Remove the All Authenticated Users group from the Directory Administrators role.
Answer: C

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NO.3 To be able to access and modify any object within the portal, regardless of any security policies set for
the object, the administrator must be a member of whichbuilt-in role?
A. Server Administrators
B. Report Administrators
C. System Administrators
D. Directory Administrators
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-181
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules BRMS v7.1, Application Development)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive (.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.5 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent Decision Service
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the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M96
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 In Unica Campaign, where do you navigate to access the Advanced Settings that allow you to manage
some Unica Campaign settings and server optimization features.?
A.Go to the Summary tab of the campaign.
B.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Options.
C.View the flowchart in View mode and select Run.
D.Open the flowchart in Edit mode and select Admin.
Answer:D

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NO.2 What is a recommended part of the planning process for a customer in order to install Unica Campaign?
A.Hardware and software environment and Unica hardware sizing parameters.
B.Create Campaigns
C.Install Cognos
D.Configure the Unica Marketing platform parameters.
Answer:A

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NO.3 What type of data table in Unica Campaign contains information that augments a base table; for
example, demographics, accounts belonging to a customer, order transactions belonging to a customer?
A.Base record table
B.Dimension table
C.General table
D.Active record table
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which Unica Campaign object(s) has no naming restrictions, for instance, using special characters
like ? or >?
A.Audience levels not including audience level field names.
B.Custom attribute display names not including custom attribute internal names.
C.Offer templates
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

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NO.5 What is a key tool to use when creating the database and schema for the Unica Campaign system
tables?
A.unica_actrg
B.Unica Campaign database information checklist.
C.unica_svradmin
D.Database native data loaders.
Answer:B

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NO.6 What key concept in Unica Campaign provides a collection or set of one or more tasks, or processes,
that Unica Campaign executes to specify and select the desired target(s) of a customer's marketing
campaign and, optionally, assigns offers, outputs data and tracks responses?
A.Offer
B.Campaign
C.Flowchart
D.Session
Answer:C

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NO.7 If you are using Unica Campaign with more than one partition, what must a customer do to configure
the IBM Cognos Reports Package?
A.The Reports Package does not support multiple partitions.
B.Configure once for all partitions.
C.Install Cognos on a separate server.
D.Configure for each partition.
Answer:A

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NO.8 When working with Unica Campaign Response History Administration, what is a key step before
beginning the work?
A.Configure response processes.
B.Define audience levels.
C.Configure table mappings.
D.Configure audience process.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Where does a customer obtain a software license key, which is required for Unica Campaign v8.2 or
lower?
A.By contacting admin@us.ibm.com.
B.By contacting the Unica license administrator.
C.By contacting campaignlicense@us.ibm.com.
D.By contacting Unica support.
Answer:D

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NO.10 For Unica Campaign, what prefix is used for system tables?
A.UARC_
B.DBO_
C.UA_
D.SYS_
Answer:C

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NO.11 What do you use in Unica Campaign to create a new variable for querying, segmenting, sorting,
calculating, or providing output to a table?
A.Derived Fields
B.Snapshot Process
C.Extract Process
D.Dimension Hierarchy
Answer:A

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NO.12 When should a user regenerate a strategic segment in Unica Campaign?
A.Never
B.Daily
C.When datasource contents have changed.
D.Whenever a new campaign is created.
Answer:C

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NO.13 What templates does a customer need to import if the Unica Marketing Platform and Unica Campaign
system tables databases are of the same database type?
A.None, the system automatically imports the template.
B.SQLServer template
C.Oracle template
D.DB2 template
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which Unica Campaign process defines the criteria to locate a set or group, such as a list of customers,
from a customer's marketing data?
A.Select
B.Audience
C.Merge
D.Sample
Answer:A

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NO.15 What utility tool should a customer use if they want to export an XML version of configuration settings
for backup, or to import the settings into a different installation of Unica Marketing Platform?
A.populateDb
B.configTool
C.partitionDb
D.unica_actrg
Answer:B

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the competition?
A. promotion of self-service
B. ability to consume Information In a variety of formats, languages, and devices
C. consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire organization
D. ability to build and automate business processes and share findings through collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.2 A professional report author in the IT department has difficulty scaling reports to meet the needs of
various user types across the business. Which feature of IBM Cognos BI would be most helpful to this
author?
A. common business model across data sources
B. flexible one-to-many prompted reports or ability to create ad-hoc reports
C. modern SOA architecture
D. environment-neutral platform
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which part of driving performance is NOT handled by IBM Cognos 8 BI.?
A. reporting
B. planning
C. analysis
D. scorecarding
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is NOT one of the three basic questions-or three rings-that business analytics answers to help
organizations optimize business strategies?
A. What is happening?
B. Why is it happening?
C. Where is it happening?
D. What is likely to happen?
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one concern?
A. compliance
B. business analytics
C. mobilitysolutions
D. risk management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-Z03
Exam Name: IBM (zEnterprise Solution Sales Update Mastery)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer currently has blades of several types, including Intel-based blades, and is using
virtualization.Without having more details of the customer
current environment what could be
presented as an advantage of the Unified Resource Manager and zBX?
A.Ability to define and run more virtual machines per virtualized blade
B.Managing the workloads in the blades according to goal-oriented policies
C.Employing a single hypervisor across all the platforms
D.Ability to easily relocate virtual machines across platforms
Answer: B

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NO.2 What software pricing option should be considered for a z/OS environment on a stand alone z114?
A.VWLC and ELA
B.IPLA or EWLC
C.AEWLC
D.PSLC
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has a large number of distributed servers running Linux.Which of the following is a potential
benefit of consolidating these systems onto a System z running Linux?
A.If the distributed servers are highly utilized, they make good candidates to consolidate onto a System z
running Linux.
B.Linux on System z is controlled by IBM, it is far superior to Linux on other platforms.
C.Server consolidation may result in a reduced footprint, environmental savings, and increased speed of
virtual Linux server creation.
D.Consolidating onto a System z can increase security since the use of HiperSockets is required.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer has many highly variable Linux workloads that would virtualize very well with z/VM. The
customer has no z/VM skills.The customer wants to implement a capacity management and chargeback
system.Which of these alternatives would be the most appropriate zEnterprise solution?
A.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with Unified Resource Manager to provide a simplified management interface
B.zBX since recent announcements shift focus away from Linux on z/VM as a viable solution
C.Linux on Power blades in a zBX with Unified Resource Manager for simplified management
D.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with services to setup and provide ongoing support for z/VM
Answer: D

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NO.5 When discussing z/OS with a new customer WLM was presented as a key differentiator. However the
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difference of z/OS WLM?
A.Manages in a holistic way all the workload elements running in z/OS
B.Can manage a multi-tier workload residing in the zEnterprise CPC and in the zBX
C.Manages processes, memory and I/O, minimizing resources
D.Minimizes required resources across the zEnterprise (CPC and zBX)
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M248
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Midmarket Foundational Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of users per module in IBM Cognos Express?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a core capability of IBM Cognos Express.?
A. data mining
B. planning
C. search
D. mobile
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which question will yield the best results when selling IBM Cognos Express to a director of sales
or marketing?
A. What happens when you do not identify the early warning signs of bottlenecks or problems?
B. What happens when management is not able to get information they need in a timely manner
for decision making or do not have the visibility they need across the multitude of business
systems?
C. When looking at your customers, are you able to determine which of them is likely to be the
most profitable, costly, or most satisfied so you can to be proactive in managing them?
D. How many people do you have creating and maintaining reports, and what is the annual cost
for supporting your reporting applications?
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which IBM Cognos Express module provides a Web-based tool for analysis?
A. Reporter
B. Manager
C. Advisor
D. Xcelerator
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about restrictions on IBM Cognos Express?
A. A customer may only purchase one IBM Cognos Express environment.
B. The maximum number of users is 50 per module, but no more than 100 in the environment.
C. IBM Cognos Express must be installed on a single Windows host.
D. A server hosting IBM Cognos Express may have a maximum of 64 cores.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M195
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the key security features of IBM Security Virtual Server Protection for VMware?
A. Rootkit Detection, Firewall, Intrusion Prevention, Virtual Network Admission Control, File Integrity
Monitoring.
B. Rootkit Detection, Firewall, Intrusion Prevention, Virtual Network Admission Control, Auditing.
C. Rootkit Detection & Removal, Firewall, Intrusion Prevention, Virtual Network Admission Control,
Auditing.
D. Rootkit Detection, Firewall, Intrusion Detection Only, Virtual Network Admission Control, Auditing.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Based upon discussions with several different vendors, a client has requested an Intrusion Prevention
System (IPS) competitive evaluation.
What action should the seller take?
A. Request that IBM Global Finance deliver evaluation equipment to the client.
B. Complete the evaluation agreement form, and deliver the equipment to the client for testing.
C. Provide the client with a tour of a Global Security Operations Center to showcase the capabilities of
IBM security products.
D. Work with a Systems Engineer to schedule delivery and implementation of the evaluation product in
the client ¯ s env ir on m en t.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The IBM Security Framework defines the need for repeatable, testable and automated controls for all
but:
A. Data security
B. Applications security
C. Asset management
D. Infrastructure protection
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is not one of the major contributing elements of IBM's Smarter Planet initiative?
A. Interconnected
B. Integrated
C. Intelligent
D. Instrumented
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following Security Focus areas as shown in the IBM Security Framework are addressed
with IBM Security Services offerings?
A. Data and Information Security.
B. Application Security.
C. Network, Server and Endpoint Security
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-G01
Exam Name: IBM (IBM EMEA Maintenance and Technical Support Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What does the abbreviation SWMA stand for?
A. It stands for Software Marketing
B. It means Software Maintenance
C. It is the acronym for Skills With Most Acceptance
D. It stands for Swap Mail
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are some of the highlights of the IBM MTSS solution?
A. Alleviates the management burden on IT and is helping to free up resources for more strategic tasks
B. IBM provides inventory, reporting and invoice management
C. Provides a comprehensive IT management solution for the client's whole IT infrastructure
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the factors to calculate the benefit of a reduced outage duration?
A. "Monthly value of a project", "Hourly resource cost", "Number of outages impacted"
B. "Hourly Outage Cost", "Reduced Outage Time", "Number of outages impacted"
C. "Hourly Outage Cost", "Reduced Outage Time", "Monthly value of a project"
D. "Hourly resource cost", "Reduced Outage Time", "Number of outages impacted"
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the objective of the Confirm phase (ERIC Questioning Framework)?
A. Leave the specifics of the next call open to have room to add other products
B. Find out if any areas of disagreement exist
C. Explore and reflect on potential MTS solutions
D. Confirm you priorities
Answer: B

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NO.5 The prerequisite for every sale is?
A. The customer must have a business need for the service
B. The customer must know that they have that need
C. The customer must feel that addressing that need is a priority
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the factors used in the algorithm to calculate the benefit of reduced problem-handling
resources?
A. "Amount of resource reallocated to strategic project", "Hourly resource cost"
B. "Monthly value of a project", "Hourly resource cost"
C. "Monthly value of a project", "Hourly Outage Cost"
D. "Hourly Outage Cost", "Amount of resource reallocated to strategic project"
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does the abbreviation "ERIC" stand for?
A. Error Recovery Interface Coupler
B. Empathy, Read between the lines, Intelligent Questioning, Control
C. Emotion, Refine, Integrate, Collaborate
D. Explore, Refine, Influence and Confirm
Answer: D

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NO.8 How does MTS deliver its value in reducing the outage duration?
A. Highly trained hardware service reps (SSRs) to handle the client's call
B. Dedicated team of professionals who know the client's environment
C. Experience in managing complex problems - particularly multi vendor
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the answer(s) is(are) among the ETS Service Elements?
A. Remote Account Advocate Team, Review Calls
B. Performance tuning Service
C. Microcode change offering, Onsite Account Advocate (option)
D. Critical Situation management, Fix-time commitment for Software problems
Answer: A

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NO.10 What defines Client Value.?
A. Superior Service
B. Server downtime
C. Business Value, Cost and a client's beliefs and assumptions
D. IBM MTS's unique services, features, and functions
Answer: C

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NO.11 How does MTS deliver its value in Outage Prevention?
A. Proactive hardware services, "client-advocate" services, Harddrive Retention
B. Proactive hardware services, "client-advocate" services, access to information across multiple vendors
C. Proactive hardware services, ServicePac services, access to information across multiple vendors
D. Hardware Service Upgrade, "client-advocate" services, access to information across multiple vendors
Answer: B

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NO.12 What do you want from call preparation?
A. Identify the desired outcomes for the call
B. Identify next steps
C. Identify how to handle difficult areas
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the objective of the Explore phase (ERIC Questioning Framework)?
A. Understand the priorities of the client
B. Understand the linkage between the IT and the business
C. Uncover and expand topics of interest
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 What distinguishes ServicePac Essentials from other ServicePac's?
A. Support for multiple machines is combined in ServicePac Essentials and Virtualized Essentials
B. ServicePac Essentials combine several service offerings into one ServicePac
C. In addition to maintenance ServicePac Essentials commit IBM to perform a service within a given time
D. They offer only essential Maintenance, nothing else
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are the rules for good questioning?
A. Give the customer a lecture about the benefits of MTS
B. Roll multiple questions into one long, rambling question
C. Do not ask reconfirming and clarification questions
D. Keep your questions short and simple
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is the single most important differentiator of the IBM SWMA?
A. The price is very low
B. It covers all software on System x
C. It is Software Support for non-IBM products only
D. It is a bundled offering for Support and Subscription of IBM Software Products
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a CRU?
A. A part that is designed to be safe and simple to replace
B. Circuit Resistor Union
C. Customer Replaceable Unit
D. A and C
Answer: D

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NO.18 What two Premium Maintenance Services offerings are offered ideally on top of a Base Maintenance
Support?
A. SupportLine and Microcode Support
B. ServicePac and Harddrive Retention
C. Software Support Extension and SupportLine
D. Service Upgrade and Committed Services
Answer: D

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NO.19 Where is ETS positioned within the MTS offering portfolio?
A. Base Warranty
B. Base Maintenance
C. IBM Committed Services
D. IBM Business Critical Services
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are potential proof points for MTS services and references you can use?
A. Describe your proof points and references in general terms
B. General industry stories
C. Understand what is relevant to your client and describe your proof points and references in those terms
D. MTS Product Information - General information on service delivery issues
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-565
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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000-565 (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-565.html

NO.1 If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?
A. Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B. Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C. IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D. There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic
network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information
was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already
extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields: customerName and
customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does
the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?
A. add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B. modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C. modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the table
created in the NCIM database
D. no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to all of the
tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the line
within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C

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NO.4 A custom event has been added requiring the creation of a new EventMap. How is this EventMap
associated with the RCA plug-in?
A. register the EventMap with the RCA plug-in using the ncp_gwplugins.pl script
B. ensure that the Eventld is mapped to the EventMap in the NcoGatelnserts.cfg file
C. edit the EventGatewaySchema.cfg and include the EventMap in the ncp2nco section
D. no action needed - any EventMap in the EventGatewaySchema.cfg file will be passed to the RCA
plug-in by default
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?
A. The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B. The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C. The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D. The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation
Answer: A

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NO.6 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on
a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will run as non-root.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and will run as
non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root account and a
non-root account.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 By default, which three fields are used by the event gateway to link an event to a topology entity?
(Choose three.)
A. @Node
B. @Class
C. @bEventld
D. @Identifier
E. @LocalPriObj
F. @LocalNodeAlias
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.10 During a deployment, a customer has identified location data that they would like added to both
chassis and interface events from active (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM)) and
passive (traps, syslog etc.) event sources.
This data has been successfully imported into the Discovery process using supported stitching
techniques and appears in the topology as three custom Extralnfo fields (see below).
Ncpjnode1 has been configured to transfer this location data to a custom extended NCIM database table
named locations (see exhibit below). This data is only held on EntityType 1 (chassis entities) to reduce the
NCIM load.
The customer has identified three ObjectServer fields that they would like this data :o be added to for all
suitable events -NmosGeography, NmosCountry, and NmosSite
Example record in Model Description of the ncim.locations table
The ModelNcimDb cofiguration has been modified to map:
Based on the scenario, what is the correct stitcher method to populate a record with Extralnfo >
m_Geogrpahy location data and then update the NmosGeography ObjectServer field?
Assume that a chassis and locationData Records have been defined and the mainNodeld is set to the
Entityld of the chassis of the in scope event.
Example:
Record chassis;
Record locationData.
text geog-'.
chassis = GwEntityData( mainNodeld);
A. geog=@chassis.tocations.GEOGRAPHY; @locationData.NmosGeography = geog.
GwEnrichEvent( locationData);
B. geog=@chassis.Extralnfo.m_Geography; @locationData.NmosGeography = geog;
GwEnrichEvent(locationData);
C. NmosGeography = eval(text, '&8<Extralnfo->m_Geography'); GwEnrichEvent (NmosGeography);
D. NmosGeogrpahy = @chassis.locations.GEOGRAPHY; @locationData.NmosGeography = eval(text,
'$NmosGeography'); GwEnrichEvent (locationData);
Answer: A

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NO.11 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Aside from the number of devices being discovered, what is the most important information to gather
when determining the number of needed domains?
A. number of polling engines
B. number of users that will use the portal
C. average number of interfaces per device
D. number of active poll definitions and intervals
Answer: C

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NO.13 The IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 administrator received a request to create a new
domain with a default set of configuration files and poll policies. A Dbl_ogins.DOMAIN.cfg file has already
been created with the appropriate access details. Which action must be taken?
A. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN>
B. rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN> -default
C. manually insert the domain details into the ncim.domainMgr table
D. start the ncp_ctrl process for the new domain name - defaults will be applied
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP
Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?
A. CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B. SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C. SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D. DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) in their environment.
They plan to discover and monitor specific various network devices and servers that are throughout their
enterprise. The customer wants to ensure that they manage only a list of devices in their network with a
specific naming convention. They currently keep track of these devices using a CSV file of IP addresses,
hostnames and locations and have SNMP and ping access to these systems. Currently their DNS server
and SysName naming conventions are not consistent. The customer also wants to ensure that they do
not discover IP addresses outside the CSV list.
Which discovery seeding method best suits their ITNM configuration?
A. configure the Collector Finder by seeding the discovery and converting the CSV file to an XML file
B. configure the Ping Finder by adding a list of subnets from the list of IP addresses using the CSV file
C. configure the File Finder to point to the CSV file on the Network Manager server with a comma
delimiter
D. ensure Feedback is enabled and then configure the Ping Finder and the File Finder by adding a list of
subnets using the CSV file
Answer: C

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NO.16 The scope of the discovery contains the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) server
and the gateway trace file shows that this is being used successfully as the correct NcpServerEntity.
However, the isolated suppression method is not working. What would cause this?
A. The ITNM server is not being directly polled for status.
B. The ITNM server is not connected to the rest of the topology.
C. There was no SNMP access to the ITNM server so the IP address is not known.
D. The Root Cause Analysis plug-in has not been explicitly configured to use the ITNM server.
Answer: B

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NO.17 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 what leads to Fatal messages in the message level log
of a ncp process?
A. process is hung
B. process is terminated
C. process has not started
D. process is running with errors
Answer: B

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NO.18 What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager
IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM).?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082,
5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port 8082 to collect its
data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on 172.16.25 1 port
8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which scenario is suitable for using default adaptive polls?
A. rapid confirmation that the poll is active
B. rapid confirmation that a device is down
C. rapid confirmation of a threshold resolution
D. rapid confirmation that a device is functioning
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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