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Exam Code: 000-124
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What disaster recovery benefit is provided to a customer running IBM i applications when they
are using PowerHA Asynchronous Geographic Mirroring?
A. All objects are automatically replicated from an independent auxiliary storage pool to another
IBM i storage pool
B. It can be used to provide disaster recovery services to multiple company locations whether using
internal disk or SAN storage.
C. It offers a cloud-based suite of remote mirroring software that enables integrated, automated
failover for IBM i and attached x86 servers
D. Instead of IBM i server replication it delivers peer-to-peer remote copy services to any remotely
attached IBM SAN storage supported by IBM 7.1
Answer: B

IBM   000-124 practice test   000-124

NO.2 An IT Director needs a relational database but cannot hire a Database Administrator (DBA) to
maintain it. How does IBM i address this challenge?
A. Systems Director Navigator for i handles DB2 database administration automatically.
B. Single Level Storage architecture and automated DB2 features mean that a DBA is not required.
C. System i Navigator manages Single Level Storage so that database administration does not require
a DBA.
D. Systems Director for i manages Single Level Storage so that database administration is easy
without a DBA.
Answer: B

IBM original questions   000-124 study guide   000-124

NO.3 A POWERS 520 customer is running IBM i 54 and is moving to a POWER7 server. Which of the
following is a valid migration plan?
A. MigratelBMi5.4tothePOWER7
B. Host IBM i 54 in a client LPAR on the POWER7
C. Upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to IBM i 7.1 after migrating to POWER7
D. Upgrade to IBM i 7.1 on the Power 520, then migrate to POWER7
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer says that they cannot use IBM i for their chosen ERP solution as some of the
application software is in Java and a Java development environment is also required.
How can this objection be addressed?
A. IBM i 7.1 on POWER7+ now supports Java running natively using DB2 for i
B. Java Virtual Machine is provided in WebSphere Application Server and runs natively on IBM i.
C. IBM i runs Javascript in a Java Virtual Machine allowing applications to run and a development
environment to be created.
D. Rational Development Studio for i has a set of Java compilers for development and a Java runtime
environment (JRE) for running applications.
Answer: B

IBM   000-124   000-124   000-124

NO.5 A prospective customer is considering a Power Systems solution with IBM i and PowerVM.
Other possible solutions being proposed to this customer are:
- x86 with Linux, Oracle, and VMware
- x86 with Windows, SQL Server, and VMware
How does the acquisition cost and TOO of the Power Systems solution compare with the x86
solutions?
A. With POWER7, the acquisition cost is lower than for both Windows and Linux offerings resulting
in a lower 3-year TOO.
B. Acquisition costs are similarfor all solutions, butthe software maintenance costs for database and
VMware raise the 3 yearTOO of the x86 solutions
C. Acquisition costs are slightly higherforthe Power Systems solution, but the significantly reduced
operational costs result in a lower TOO over 3 years.
D. The acquisition and 3 year operational costs are lower than the Windows solution, and the
Oracle maintenance fees result in a higher 3 year TOO compared to Power.
Answer: C

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NO.6 An executive has expressed frustration about the inflexibilityof reports from their IBM i system
and is looking for a solution that supports more dynamic and flexible reports.
How will DB2 Web Query support thecustomer'sneed?
A. Web Query provides collaborative tools to rapidly analyze data, business requirements and
budgets.
B. Web Query supports predictive analysis and reports rising trends so that smarter decisions can be
made.
C. Web Query provides reporting, dashboards and ad hoc query capability through simple-to-use
user interlaces.
D. Web Query combines business intelligence data, system performance, management reports and
analysis in a controlled, secure, auditable environment.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A 010 isconcerned about systems securityand transmission of confidential data across the
internet. What capabilities of the IBM i platform can the sales executive highlight in this situation?
A. PowerS0 software is optimized to provide security and compliance for POWER operating systems.
B. Security Access Manager combines user access management, web application protection and
encryption.
C. IBM i can send secure data across untrusted networks using SSL, IBM i Access for Windows, and
VPN connections.
D. RealSecure Server Sensor provides data loss prevention and preemptive protection while
enforcing server security policies.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What capabilityof single level storage increases system administrator productivity?
A. Multiple storage pools
B. Automatic data placement
C. Flexible storage attachment
D. HMC-based storage allocation
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-226
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills -v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

IBM certification   000-226 test answers   000-226 original questions

NO.3 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.5 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-455
Exam Name: IBM (High Volume Storage Fundamentals V3)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer has a large campus facility and needs to connect storage in two different buildings
that are 1 km apart. Which of the following cables would be used?
A. SAS
B. SCSI
C. Single-mode fiber
D. Multi-mode fiber
Answer: C

IBM   000-455 test answers   000-455   000-455

NO.2 On Monday, Wednesday and Friday a customer completes a backup of only the files that are
changed from the previous full backup.
This is referred to as what type of backup?
A. incremental backup
B. differential backup
C. full backup
D. partial file backup
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is in need of archiving a great amount of medical records for a government
research project. These records are of patients, diseases, treatments and results. These records will
be built over the term of 5 years and need to be archived for 20 years.
What would be the best solution to store these records and provide maximum and efficient record
access?
A. Tape Encryption
B. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. Linear Tape File System
D. Tivoli Endpoint Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which type of drive would be the most cost effective for tier 3 level data?
A. Nearline SAS
B. SSD
C. Fibre Channel
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.5 A sales representative has been meeting with the IT Director, and discussing the small
footprint and capacity of the DCS3700 and how this solution would allow them to add the needed
capacity in a very small footprint. The IT Director has agreed to purchase the DCS3700 if the IT staff
can perform day-to-day management of the new storage solution without extensive training.
What tool would be used to demonstrate the management capabilities of the DCS3700?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Disk Magic
C. DDP Calculator Tool
D. Storage Manager/Simulator
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which IBM resource would a Business Partner without access to lab equipment use to provide
a client proof of concept?
A. IBM Innovation Center
B. IBM Techline Pre-sales Support
C. IBM Competeline
D. IBM PartnerWorld
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is using an aging EMO DMX and is running out of floor space in their data center.
They are a loyal EMO customer but the 010 is willing to have a quick discussion with IBM.
What IBM storage efficiency technologies should be discussed to address their floor space issue?
A. FlashCopy and replication
B. tape automation and LTO tape
C. storage virtualization and thin provisioning
D. manual tiring and external virtualization
Answer: C

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NO.8 Based on the LTO standard, what is the published data compression rate of LTO-6?
A. 2.0:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 3.5:1
D. 5.0:1
Answer: B

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NO.9 A web based company has an online product catalog. During certain times of the year, there
are peaks that stress the catalog database. The database is easily restored from DVD if corrupted.
To speed up response time, what RAID level would provide improved performance and maximum
capacity?
A. RAIDU
B. RAID 10
C. RAID5
D. RAID6
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which application would the technical specialist recommend for an application specific
point-intime copy?
A. IBM Systems Director
B. Tivoli Storage Manager
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
D. Tivoli StorageFlashCopyManager
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-653
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Emptoris Strategic Supply Management Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

00M-653 (IBM Emptoris Strategic Supply Management Sales Mastery Test v1) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/00M-653.html

NO.1 There are many benefits derived from Emptoris Sourcing.
Which is not one?
A. Enforce compliance to standard process
B. Actively monitor supplier risk
C. Increase Adoption with RFx Wizards and Templates
D. Analyze "Non-Price" Factors to award suppliers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/industries/publicsector/fileserve?contentid=243307

NO.2 Which of the following does not qualify as a prospect?
A. Annual budget for software is $50k
B. Number of mobile devices is greater than 1,000
C. Customer is currently considering Ariba, Bravo, CombineNet, lasta
D. Annual spend with the suppliers is greater than $400m
Answer: D

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NO.3 Who is not a main stream competitor?
A. SAP
B. Upside
C. Ariba
D. Hiperos
Answer: D

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Reference:http://blogs.forrester.com/andrew_bartels/11-12-15ibms_acquisition_of_emptoris_mov
es_it_squarely_into_the_epurchasing_software_market _watch_out_for_f

NO.4 From the selection list below, which option best describes why a customer would purchase the
Spend Analysis solution?
A. Manage "at risk" suppliers
B. Move contracts through faster to win more deals
C. To bring more spend under management
D. Guarantee more "on-time" delivery from suppliers
Answer: C

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chments%2FIBM%2520UNITED%25
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NO.5 Below are example of Emptoris business drivers in the healthcare industry. Which one does
not apply?
A. A New CPO has been chartered by the CEO/COO to drive down operating costs
B. Successful usage of contract management for managing provider contracts
C. Pressure to reduce operating and medical costs while maintaining standards of care
D. Face-to-face channels where the customer interacts directly with agents who are able to
communicate with the portal electronically
Answer: C

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NO.6 In cases where a prospect has multiple instances of ERP systems, Emptoris' Spend Analysis
value proposition most accurately reflects:
A. Ability to pull these sources together, cleansing the data and providing a single common view of a
process.
B. Provide a document management approach as opposed to a continuous synchronization of the
document with the data base
C. A proven track record of capturing savings in categories such as ingredients, raw materials,
assemblies, transportation, IT, facilities.
D. Segment the supplier base across multiple categories, geographies, and business units to manage
performance and evaluate capabilities at a local or global dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer would NOT use Contract Management to become best in class via:
A. Obligation control
B. Contract Authoring
C. Gaining Contract Visibility
D. Running eAuctions
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S01
Exam Name: HP (HP AssetCenter v5 x Software Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

HP0-S01 (HP AssetCenter v5 x Software Exam) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/HP0-S01.html

NO.1 What are three types of filters that AssetCenter offers to enable the user to display their selected data?
Select THREE.
A. Query filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Universal filter
D. Standard filter
E. Linear filter
F. Simple filter
Answer: ADF

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NO.2 AssetCenter enables your organization to _______. Select THREE.
A. Define, optimize, and track specific business processes of an organization
B. Effectively manage documents within the enterprise
C. Secure and protect your employee identitiesSecure and protect your employee? identities
D. Manage an enterprise portfolio, which includes assets, contracts, inventory, and business data
important for achieving the business objective of an organization
E. Empower employees to make educated business decisions
Answer: ADE

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NO.3 Which report software provides out-of-the-box AssetCenter reports?
A. Actuate
B. Crystal Decisions
C. Crystal Reports
D. Cognos
Answer: C

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NO.4 What three IT Asset Management best practices are incorporated within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. Network Management
B. Service Management
C. Contract Management
D. Identity Management E. Asset Tracking
F. Procurement Management
Answer: CEF

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NO.5 Which activities or utilities are provided to help control costs within the enterprise?
A. Ability to manage ITSM activities within the enterprise
B. Ability to manage the database
C. Ability to manage software license compliance and entitlement
D. Ability to manage an enterprise IT topology
Answer: C

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NO.6 What two tests must be completed before deployment of the AssetCenter application into a production
environment? Select TWO.
A. Performance tests
B. Consistency tests
C. No tests are required
D. Functional tests
Answer: AD

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NO.7 What four modules exist within AssetCenter? Select FOUR.
A. Portfolio Module
B. Request Module
C. Identity Module
D. Discovery Module
E. Procurement Module
F. Financials Module
G. Contract Module
Answer: AEFG

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NO.8 When can the Archival function of AssetCenter be enabled?
A. Only before creating the database
B. Only after creating the database
C. Both before and after creating the database
D. There is no Archival function
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which three technologies are used within AssetCenter? Select THREE.
A. RDBMS
B. JavaScript
C. AQL
D. Cypress Basic
E. XML
F. C++
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 What four common data tables exist within the Portfolio module? Select FOUR.
A. Locations
B. Employees and departments
C. Contracts
D. Expense lines
E. Models
F. Natures
Answer: ABEF

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Exam Code: HP0-S13
Exam Name: HP ( HP BladeSystem Class Solutions I)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 151 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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HP0-S13 ( HP BladeSystem Class Solutions I) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/HP0-S13.html

NO.1 Which statements are true regarding the BladeSystem? (Select two.)
A. BladeSystem c-Class and p-Class server blades will not ship until 2009.
B. The c-Class interconnects are compatible with the p-Class interconnects at a management interface
level.
C. c-Class server blades can be installed in a p-Class enclosure with an enclosure upgrade kit.
D. p-Class and c-Class server blades are compatible with industry-standard Web Based Enterprise
Management (WBEM).
E. The Onboard Administrator can manage both p-Class and c-Class enclosures.
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which statements are true when using the HP StorageWorks SB40c storage blade for c-Class?
(Select three.)
A. Each SB40c storage blade can partner with only one server blade.
B. A c7000 enclosure can have a maximum of eight SB40c storage blades.
C. The SB40c storage blade supports Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) drives only.
D. A full-height storage blade can connect to a maximum of two SB40c storage blades.
E. Each SB40c storage blade requires an HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru card to be installed in
mezzanine slot 3 of the full-height storage blade.
F. If connecting both the SB40c storage blade and the Ultrium 448c tape blade to the same full-height
server blade, the SB40c storage blade must be installed in the top bay.
Answer: ABE

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NO.3 What are the features of the HP Customer Self-Repair program? (Select three.)
A. HP ships the replacement part directly to the customer.
B. The customer is responsible for replacing the faulty part.
C. HP ships the replacement part to an authorized partner closest to the customer.
D. The customer diagnoses the issue and determines whether a replacement part is required.
E. The program is available for HP products that are under warranty but not covered by a service
contract.
F. An HP support specialist diagnoses the problem and determines whether a replacement part is
necessary.
Answer: ABF

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NO.4 You are configuring the MSA1000 storage solution to boot from a SAN. Although there are several
physical drives reported in the ACU graphical user interface, the Selective Storage Presentation (SSP)
link is missing. Why?
A. The ACU has detected multiple paths from the host.
B. The MSA1000 does not have any logical drives defined.
C. An incorrect MSA1000 device driver is loaded in the host server.
D. The host server is not running the HP Insight Agents, or these agents are outdated.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statements correctly describe the integrated management functionality of HP SIM and HP
BladeSystem c-Class environments? (Select three.)
A. The redundant Onboard Administrator module cannot automatically take over control of the enclosure
until the primary Onboard Administrator module fails.
B. For added security, you must specify your user name and password when accessing the server blade
iLOs from the Onboard Administrator GUI.
C. The Onboard Administrator includes status information from the server blade agents and therefore
displays the same server blade status in its GUI as HP SIM.
D. HP SIM reports the Onboard Administrator modules, server blades, and server blade iLOs separately
because each has its own IP address and its own instrumentation.
E. Both the primary and redundant Onboard Administrator modules share the same IP address, thereby
enabling transparent failover for HP SIM and other management clients.
F. You can change which Onboard Administrator module is active and which is standby by logging in to
the standby Onboard Administrator module user interface and changing its setting.
Answer: ADF

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NO.6 From which sources can you configure individual iLO management processors? (Select three.)
A. from an FTP server
B. through a scripted setup
C. from the HP Management CDROM
D. through virtual Keyboard/Video/Monitor (KVM)
E. remotely through a browser-based Web interface
F. locally using the ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
Answer: BEF

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In a four-fan configuration, where must these fans be installed?
A. bays 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. bays 1, 2, 3, and 5
C. bays 2, 4, 5, and 6
D. bays 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement correctly describes Insight Control Data Center Edition (ICDCE)?
A. all-in-one Linux-hosted blade management and deployment software package
B. integrated suite of software that simplifies the provisioning, management, and recovery of
BladeSystem infrastructures
C. HP SIM 5.1 plug-in that adds remote monitoring and warranty, HP Care Pack, and contract entitlement
features to HP SIM
D. server deployment solution that facilitates the installation, configuration, and deployment of
high-volumes of servers through either a GUI-based or a Web-based console, using either scripting or
imaging technology
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which HP software is included with Insight Control Data Center Edition (ICDCE) and can be installed
as an option in the ICDCE installation but must be licensed separately? (Select two.)
A. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
B. Remote Support Pack (RSP)
C. Virtual Machine Management (VMM) Pack
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM) Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which statements describe how the Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) management processor receives its
power in the HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure? (Select two.)
A. iLO receives its power through a connection to the server.
B. iLO receives its power through an independent connection.
C. iLO can be activated through Virtual Power from a remote server.
D. iLO receives redundant power in the event of a power supply failure.
E. iLO can be activated even if the server is not connected to a power source.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 How can the Onboard Administrator show a health status different from the status displayed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. The passive Onboard Administrator might have been activated through the user interface without
notifying HP SIM.
B. The active Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the
server blades.
C. The active Onboard Administrator might indicate a failure that HP SIM displays in the event log rather
than in the health status.
D. The passive Onboard Administrator does not send a trap to HP SIM indicating a change of state when
it activates after a failure.
E. Because of an Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) configuration error, iLO might have indicated different health
states to the Onboard Administrator and to HP SIM.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Which functions does the Onboard Administrator perform in the BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. It manages connections to the interconnect modules.
B. It activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails.
C. It automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software.
D. It drives all management features through the Inter-Integrated Circuit (I2C) and Intelligent Chassis
Management Bus (ICMB) interfaces.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 To utilize all four Ethernet ports on the NC325m PCIe Quad-Port 1Gb Server Adapter, which
mezzanine position must you avoid?
A. mezzanine position 1 in full-height server blades
B. mezzanine position 2 in full-height server blades
C. mezzanine position 3 in full-height server blades
D. mezzanine position 1 in half-height server blades
E. mezzanine position 2 in half-height server blades
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding the HP StorageWorks Ultrium 448c Tape Blade? (Select three.)
A. The tape blade provides direct-attach data protection for the adjacent server blade.
B. The tape blade provides network backup protection for all data within the enclosure.
C. The tape blade installs in a full-height device bay of either the c3000 or c7000 enclosure.
D. The tape blade installs in a half-height device bay of either the c3000 or c7000 enclosure.
E. The tape blade and the SB40c storage blade can both partner with the same full-height server blade.
F. The tape blade can partner with any of the HP BladeSystem c-Class ProLiant or Integrity server blades.
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 Which role-based Virtual Connect Manager access enables you to create, edit, and delete Virtual
Connect profiles?
A. Server
B. Admin
C. Storage
D. Domain
E. Networking
Answer: A

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NO.16 How will the HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures indicate if a server blade is not installed in the correct
device bay?
A. The HP BladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the enclosure to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnects to power on.
E. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Which types of drives are supported by the HP BladeSystem c-Class storage blades? (Select two.)
A. SCSI
B. Serial ATA (SATA)
C. Parallel ATA (PATA)
D. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
E. Fibre Attached Technology Adapted (FATA)
Answer: BD

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NO.18 Which statements describe the function of the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. It enables automated provisioning of the HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades.
B. It provides I2C and ICMB management interfaces to all HP BladeSystem c-Class components.
C. It consolidates 16 iLO 2 ports in the c7000 enclosure and 8 iLO 2 ports in the c3000 enclosure.
D. It creates a LAN-based or SAN-based abstraction layer between the server blades and the external
LAN/SAN.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Ten fans are installed in a fully populated c7000 enclosure and are configured as AC Redundant. All
server blades are powered on. What happens if one fan fails? (Select three.)
A. The fan subsystem health status remains OK.
B. The health LED of the failed fan illuminates red.
C. The health LED of the failed fan illuminates solid amber.
D. The fan subsystem health status changes to FAILED.
E. The fan subsystem health status changes to DEGRADED.
F. The Onboard Administrator increases the fan RPM to maximum.
G. The Onboard Administrator begins to shut down the least active server blades.
Answer: CEF

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NO.20 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class components are covered by the HP 3-year parts, 3-year labor, and
3-year on-site limited global warranty? (Select three.)
A. server blades
B. c7000 enclosures
C. c3000 enclosures
D. SAS and SATA disk drives
E. Ethernet and SAN interconnect switches
F. Ethernet and Fibre Channel Pass-Thru modules
Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: HP0-J12
Exam Name: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 119 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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HP0-J12 (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/HP0-J12.html

NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.9 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.13 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.16 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.18 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.19 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.22 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.26 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.27 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.29 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.30 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-311
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView TeMIP)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______
Management Module.
A.Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM
B.Domain, Alarms FM
C.MCC, Event Filtering FM
D.TeMIP, Framework FM
Answer:C

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NO.2 What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity?
A.notify
B.getevent
C.summarize
D.subscribe
Answer:B

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NO.3 The Notify is a directive of the _______ class and is handled by the _______ Management Module.
A.notification, Notification FM
B.domain, Domain FM
C.domain, Notification FM
D.entity, Notification FM
Answer:C

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NO.4 Based on directive cascading, what is the alarm collection chain?
A.RESUME OC + NOTIFY DOMAIN + GETEVENT entity
B.CREATE AO+ GETEVENT entity
C.CREATE entity + DISPATCH event + LISTEN event
D.ENABLE OC
Answer:A

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NO.5 An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO.
A.no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event
B.there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event
C.a Low Level Filter discarded this event
D.the connection with the Oracle database has been lost
E.a security profile has blocked the collection of this event
Answer:A C

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Exam Code: HP0-S18
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte
and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel technology for large database transfers and very large input/output
operations
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN
facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

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NO.5 What features are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24?
(Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: A, C

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